Answer 25

25.  Choice B is correct.  CMV is a DNA virus not a RNV virus.  CMV is a herpes virus cultured from urine, throat, blood semen, stool, tears, and breast milk.  In immunocompetent patients it presents as a mononucleosis like syndrome.

Question 25

25.  All of the following are true of cytomegalovirus (CMV) except:  

A.  CMV is a member of the herpes family

B.  CMV is an RNA virus

C.  CMV infections in immunocompetent patients are generally asymptomatic or present as a mononucleosis type syndrome

D.  CMV has been cultured from urine, throats, blood, semen, stool, tears, and breast milk

Answer 24

24.  Choice B is the correct answer.  Rocephin 250 mg IM is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea.  Doxycycline 100 mg BID is the treatment for chlamydia.  Metronidazole 2 grams PO times one dose can be given for trichomonas.  

Question 24

24.  Your patient is a 32 year old male with newly diagnosed primary syphilis.  Which of the following is the best treatment plan?

A.  Rocephin 250 mg IM times one dose
B.  Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM
C.  Doxycycline 100 mg BID 14 days
D.  Metronidazole 2 grams PO

Answer 23

23.  Choice D is the correct answer.  Mebendazole is indicated for pinworms.  Fluconazole is for yeast infections.  Ketoconazole is systemic medication for fungal infections.  Metronidazole is an antibiotic typically given for trichomonas in gardnarella.

Question 23

23.  Your patient is 8 year old female who presents with pinworms.  Which of the following is the best management plan?

A.  Metronidazole
B.  Fluconazole
C.  Ketoconazole
D.  Mebendazole

Answer 22

22.  Choice C is the the correct answer.  Patients who have received less than 3 doses of tetanus toxoid should be given both tetanus toxoid and tetanus immunoglobulin post exposure.  Patients who have received at least 3 doses of tetanus toxoid, should just receive the tetanus toxoid in 10 year intervals.

Question 22

22.  Your patient is a 4 year old non immunized male who presents after stepping on a rusty nail.  Which of the following is the best management plan?

A.  Tetanus Toxoid
B.  Tetanus Immunoglobulin
C.  Tetanus Toxoid and Tetanus Immunoglobulin
D.  No immunization is indicated

Answer 21

21.  Choice D is the correct answer.  Shigella is a disease of the lower GI tract only.  It can cause nausea and vomiting but typically does not cause inflammation of the stomach and small intestine itself.  Symptoms of shigella include fever, abdominal cramping, diarrhea, blood and mucoid diarrhea, and vomiting.  Shigella is an aerobic gram negative bacteria.  Shigella is sensitive to levaquin, cipro, zithromax, bactrim, and rocephin.

Question 21

21.  All of the following are characteristics of Shigella except:

A.  Aerobic
B.  Gram Negative Bacillus
C.  Sensitive to azithromycin
D.  Affects the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts